There is little doubt that slavery did play some role in the South’s decision to secede, if for no other reason, than its distrust of Lincoln.

However, if the North was so intent on ending slavery, why did it take 4 years to create and ratify the 13th amendment, particularly, when not a single Southern statesman, was present to hinder its passage?

Just prior to Lincoln’s inauguration, the Permanent Slavery or “Corwin Amendment” was brought to a vote, by the Northern controlled Congress and endorsed by the President-Elect and President.

This attempt to lure the seceded states back into the Union failed, in spite of the fact that it would make slavery permanent and irrevocable.

Was the Emancipation Proclamation in fact a lawful edict?

Considering slavery was protected by the Constitution; can an Executive Order override the Constitution?

Why were Missouri, Maryland, Delaware, Kentucky, West Virginia, Tennessee and parts of Louisiana specifically exempted from freeing slaves, if indeed emancipation was the objective?

[con'td]

Excerpt from “Defending The Heritage” CD – Track #10